I live in ontario. I have been divorced for over a year (court order effective for more than a year). My former spouse has moved out of the house. I am the sole occupant of the house over the last year. Does my former spouse still have a right to enter the property without my consent? There was a verbal and informal written agreement that that I can occupy the house until it is sold. I have been paying the mortgage, insurance etc.
Answer by Hamoody Hassan
Posted 11 months ago
This is general advice, not based upon any particular case, fact or law: seek individual legal advice. I can only answer generally and cannot offer an opinion about your case. If you want an objective opinion or to interview with a lawyer, check out many lawyers on the internet like our firm who offer free consultations on contingency files. You can also phone the Law Society Lawyer Referral Service directly at 1-855-947-5255 or 416-947-5255 (within the GTA), Monday - Friday, between 9 am - 5 pm. They will provide 3 names of lawyers who handle cases like yours. Good Luck! Hamoody Hassan, Senior Counsel, http://www.hassanlaw.com
Please note that this is for informational purposes only and does not constitute legal advice to you. Legal advice pertaining to your particular situation can only be provided by a lawyer who has met with you to obtain all pertinent background information necessary to give you a formal legal opinion. For formal legal advice, hire a lawyer (many give a free first consultation). Contact <a href="http://hassanlaw.com/" target="_blank" rel="nofollow">Hamoody Hassan, Senior Counsel, </a><a href="http://legal.advicescene.com/account/www.hassanlaw.com" target="" rel=""></a><b><a href="http://www.hassanlaw.com/" target="_blank" rel="nofollow">http://www.hassanlaw.com</a></b>, or search the <a href="http://legal.advicescene.com/ca/lawyers" target="" rel="">Lawyer Directory</a>. <br>